Because I read the link and that was what the example said.
Because again, 1.0 lots were given in the example I understand numerically it can be any risk tolerance....The rest of the paragraph I'll leave alone.
Everything you do effects your risk exposure. If you split your orders on 1yrs worth of trades you will get a vastly different outcome than not splitting them, with all other things (MM, trade management etc.) being the same. My opinion from my own experience is that it hurts the consistency, stability, and over all dollar amount of returns. When implemented on a intraday-swing trade time frame.
I know the difference between staggering and martingale, I was using the example in the link given. I asked you guys(who do it)how exactly you were doing it but no one commented.....Hayseed actually indulged me and he was never in the original post. From what Hayseed has shown me (TY Hayseed), "To me" he takes his analysis/bias from a mostly larger scale view, weekly/monthly which is strongly rooted on fundamentals, he then covers an entire price range with orders on a lower timeframe to pinpoint reversals etc. Why he does this I do not know, my assumption is its either liquidity issues with his contact sizes, or its just a method that he is comfortable with. But he is still operating from a longer term-fundamentals mindset and dropping down TF's for accuracy. Its not subject to market noise and he is (to the best of my knowledge)not looking for intraday/swing pip values. He is IMO short term investing. Now I do realize I saw a small snap shot and it probably is not the whole trading skill-set that he uses. Go back and carefully read his replies to my questions, If anyone has a idea he does based on his method.
This comment I will use only as a break in my post as its all it is useful for.
To again clarify my belief based upon my experience. Staggering trades on a intraday-swing trade basis will force the trader to capture larger moves in the market. A negative curve will be created over a long period of trades because the traders losses on average will consist of a larger amount of contracts than the profit side. You are in effect trading a negative risk:reward over the long term. Also adding in the extra cost of spreads that are paid out of pocket on the loosing trades and giving up those profits on the winning trades. The over all success of the system/method being traded will increase or decrease this negative curve, but it is none the less one more dynamic that is stacked against the trader in the long term. This is not to be confused with placing more orders with the same bias via pullbacks, s/r areas. These would be considered individual orders unto themselves at key levels. Large firms do scale positions on a longer term but this is mainly because they are trading contract sizes so large that liquidity is a problem at this level. They may want to sell off but the market doesn't have the volume of buyers to their sell orders. They often need to manipulate the market and they would place more buy orders at resistance to lure in buyers in the market (usually breakout traders) and then quickly sell their contracts off to them in a zone above and below resistance(in this case) hense the large wicks @ support/resistance. For these firms trading millions of dollars scaling is for the most part a necessary evil. I'm sure they would love to liquidate those large positions with one click of the mouse...........
Edit: What is being referred to here as scaling is a trader placing orders 5-15 pips apart trying to capture 50-70 pip moves, the negative curve almost becomes an insidious backdrop to the traders account much like an inflation.